by bystander » Fri Sep 09, 2011 5:05 am
mst66186 wrote:Well, I have an open mind and I'm prepared to change my point of view. Your task, as an academic, is to make me change my mind! I like to think I'm a rationalist, so if you are too we should be able to reach an agreement, or agree to differ.
I'm not an academic. I'm just a pathetic retiree, an innocent bystander.
I'm not at all convinced your mind is open, and when it comes to mathematics, I must admit mine isn't. Mathematics is a rigorous subject and not subject to whimsy.
Wikipedia wrote:In mathematics, a
countable set is a set with the same
cardinality (number of elements) as some subset of the set of
natural numbers. ... The elements of a countable set can be counted one at a time —
although the counting may never finish, every element of the set will eventually be associated with a natural number.
What this means, in mathematics, is that it can be demonstrated that there is a mapping function that can map the set to the set of natural numbers (not necessarily that they have been counted). The set of integers has been mapped, as has the set of rational numbers. They are, therefore, countable.
In set theory, an infinite set is a set that is not finite, that is to say, it is a set without bounds. For the set of integers this means
there is no greatest integer. For whatever integer you choose, no matter how large, there is always one larger.
∞ is not an integer, so your statement "for all numbers x, where x is a member of the set of integers, there is no x such that the successor of x is ∞" is true by default, because ∞ is not a part of the set. That does not mean there exists a greatest integer.
Your
Test for Existence is a logical fallacy,
denying the antecedent.
If it can be found, then it exists. It hasn't been found, therefore it doesn't exist.
Symbolically: If
P, then
Q. Not
P, therefore not
Q. This simply doesn't hold.
The most difficult subjects can be explained to the most slow-witted man if he has not formed any idea of them already; but the simplest thing cannot be
made clear to the most intelligent man if he is firmly persuaded that he knows already, without a shadow of doubt, what is laid before him. — Leo Tolstoy
[quote="mst66186"]Well, I have an open mind and I'm prepared to change my point of view. Your task, as an academic, is to make me change my mind! I like to think I'm a rationalist, so if you are too we should be able to reach an agreement, or agree to differ.[/quote]
I'm not an academic. I'm just a pathetic retiree, an innocent bystander.
I'm not at all convinced your mind is open, and when it comes to mathematics, I must admit mine isn't. Mathematics is a rigorous subject and not subject to whimsy.
[quote="Wikipedia"]In mathematics, a [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Countable_set][b][i]countable set[/i][/b][/url] is a set with the same [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinality][b]cardinality[/b][/url] (number of elements) as some subset of the set of [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_number][b]natural numbers[/b][/url]. ... The elements of a countable set can be counted one at a time — [b][i]although the counting may never finish[/i][/b], every element of the set will eventually be associated with a natural number. [/quote]
What this means, in mathematics, is that it can be demonstrated that there is a mapping function that can map the set to the set of natural numbers (not necessarily that they have been counted). The set of integers has been mapped, as has the set of rational numbers. They are, therefore, countable.
In set theory, an infinite set is a set that is not finite, that is to say, it is a set without bounds. For the set of integers this means [b][i]there is no greatest integer[/i][/b]. For whatever integer you choose, no matter how large, there is always one larger.
∞ is not an integer, so your statement "for all numbers x, where x is a member of the set of integers, there is no x such that the successor of x is ∞" is true by default, because ∞ is not a part of the set. That does not mean there exists a greatest integer.
Your [i]Test for Existence[/i] is a logical fallacy, [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denying_the_antecedent][b]denying the antecedent[/b][/url].
If it can be found, then it exists. It hasn't been found, therefore it doesn't exist.
Symbolically: If [i]P[/i], then [i]Q[/i]. Not [i]P[/i], therefore not [i]Q[/i]. This simply doesn't hold.
[hr][/hr][size=90][color=#808080][b][i]The most difficult subjects can be explained to the most slow-witted man if he has not formed any idea of them already; but the simplest thing cannot be
made clear to the most intelligent man if he is firmly persuaded that he knows already, without a shadow of doubt, what is laid before him.[/i] — Leo Tolstoy[/b][/color][/size]